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Contested verses›John 1:1

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Why translations differ · John 1:1

"The Word was God" or "a god"?

There is no manuscript question here. Catholic, Orthodox and Protestant churches read John 1:1 as "the Word was God", meaning that the Word shares fully in what God is while being distinct from the Father ("with God"). The Jehovah's Witnesses' New World Translation reads "a god", arguing from the Greek's missing article. Grammarians who reject "a god" answer in two ways: some (Colwell, Metzger) argue that a predicate noun placed before the verb can be definite without the article; others (Harner) that it marks a quality, "the same nature as God", not "one god among others".

The verse

Text

BSBIn the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

KJVIn the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

WEBIn the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

John 1:1 · “the Word was God / the Word was a god”

καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος (kai theos ēn ho logos); earlier in the verse πρὸς τὸν θεόν (pros ton theon, 'with the God')

In the clause before, "the Word was with God", God has the article (τὸν θεόν). In the last clause θεός has no article and stands before the verb: literally "and God was the Word", where the article on ὁ λόγος marks "the Word" as the subject. Greek has no indefinite article, so an article-less noun can sometimes be rendered "a ...": in Acts 28:6 the islanders say Paul is θεόν, "a god" (KJV). The question is what John's clause requires. The New World Translation (Jehovah's Witnesses) has "the Word was a god", with the study note "Or 'the Word was divine [or, 'a godlike one']'", arguing that the absence of the article "makes the·osʹ qualitative in meaning and describes a characteristic" and denying that the Word is "the same as Almighty God". Grammarians who reject "a god" take two routes. Colwell (1933) argued that a definite predicate noun placed before the verb normally lacks the article, so that here "it is indefinite in this position only when the context demands it", and the context does not; Metzger (1953), following Colwell, called "a god" "a frightful mistranslation" that would make its users "polytheists". Harner (1973) instead agreed that the noun is qualitative but suggested the sense "the Word had the same nature as God". The Catholic NAB (New Testament revised 1986) notes that the "lack of a definite article with 'God' in Greek signifies predication rather than identification", that is, John does not say the Word is the same person as "the God" he is with. Origen, in the third century, already drew a distinction between "God with the article" (the Father) and "God (without article)", even contrasting "God absolutely and a god", while saying that the Word "by being with God is at all times God". The Nicene Creed (325) expresses the reading held by Catholic, Orthodox and most Protestant churches: "God of God, Light of Light, very God of very God". Plainly put: the Greek excludes reading the clause as "the Word is the Father", and the context (the Word as creator in 1:3, Thomas's "my Lord and my God" in 20:28) is what most translators cite against "a god"; but grammar alone does not make "a god" impossible, so the choice is finally theological.1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

How translations render it
“the Word was God”KJV, ASV, BSB, WEB, DRC, YLT, DBY
“that Word was God”GNV
“καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος”SBLGNT, RP2018, TR-Boyd
“he was a god”KJV

Also: John 1:18 · John 20:28 · Acts 28:6

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