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Contested verses›Isaiah 7:14

⚠ Draft: researched, still being fact-checked.

Why translations differ · Isaiah 7:14

Virgin or young woman?

Isaiah's Hebrew word ʿalmâ means a young woman of marriageable age; the Greek Septuagint rendered it parthenos ("virgin"), and Matthew 1:23 quotes that Greek to read the sign as fulfilled in Mary. The sign was first given to King Ahaz, with a timeline in his own day (7:16), so Christian readers speak of its fullest fulfilment in Christ. Older and many Christian Bibles say "virgin"; Jewish and several modern versions, including the Catholic NABRE, "young woman".

The verse

Text

BSBTherefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call Him Immanuel.

KJVTherefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

JPSTherefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Isaiah 7:14 · “a virgin / the young woman”

הָעַלְמָה (hāʿalmâ, 'the ʿalmâ'); Septuagint ἡ παρθένος (hē parthenos); Matthew 1:23 ἡ παρθένος

The Hebrew has the definite article, "the ʿalmâ". BDB defines ʿalmâ as "young woman (ripe sexually; maid or newly married)"; the usual Hebrew word for "virgin" is a different one, bĕtûlâ, which BDB glosses simply "virgin". ʿalmâ occurs in seven verses (not counting the musical term ʿălāmôt in 1 Chr 15:20, which the database tags as a separate word). In Gen 24:43 it is Abraham's servant's word for the girl who will come to draw water, who turns out to be Rebekah, whom the same chapter has just called a bĕtûlâ whom "no man had known" (Gen 24:16): so the word can be used of a virgin, but it does not itself state that she is one. The medieval Jewish commentators Ibn Ezra and Radak make the same point, both citing "the way of a man with an ʿalmâ" (Prov 30:19): an ʿalmâ may be a virgin or not. Christian defenders of "virgin" reply that the word is in fact often used of girls who are virgins (Calvin, Chrysostom), and rest their main case on the context, which calls the birth a "sign" (see the fourth note below). The Septuagint, a Jewish translation that both sides in the 2nd-century debate traced to the elders sent to King Ptolemy, is not uniform: it renders ʿalmâ as parthenos in Gen 24:43 and Isa 7:14, as neanis ("young woman") in Exod 2:8, Ps 68:25 (LXX 67:26), Song 1:3 and 6:8, and with "youth" in Prov 30:19. The Septuagint also calls Dinah a parthenos (Gen 34:3) right after Shechem has lain with her (34:2), so in that translation parthenos does not always carry the technical sense either. Matthew 1:23 quotes the Septuagint's parthenos. In the second century the Jewish revisers Aquila and Theodotion put neanis in Isa 7:14; Irenaeus (Adv. Haer. III.21.1) and Justin's Dialogue with Trypho record that Jewish teachers of the time said the verse should read "young woman". English translations follow one side or the other: KJV, ASV, Douay-Rheims and Brenton's Septuagint have "a virgin"; BSB, WEB and Darby "the virgin" (BSB with the footnote "Or young woman"); JPS 1917, the NRSV and the current Catholic NABRE (2011) "the young woman". The 1970 NAB, also Catholic, had read "the virgin": the change happened inside one tradition.1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

How translations render it
“a virgin”KJV, ASV, DRC, LXXE
“the virgin”BSB, WEB, DBY, GNV
“the young woman”JPS
“הָעַלְמָה”WLC
“ἡ παρθένος”LXX-Br
“ἡ παρθένος”SBLGNT

Also: Matthew 1:23 · Genesis 24:43 · Genesis 24:16

Isaiah 7:14 · “shall conceive / is with child”

הָרָה וְיֹלֶדֶת בֵּן (hārâ wəyōledet bēn): adjective 'pregnant' + participle 'bearing'

Neither Hebrew word has a tense. hārâ is an adjective, "pregnant" (BDB), and yōledet is a participle; the database's morphology codes are HAafsa (adjective) and Vqrfsa (participle). Whether the woman is already pregnant or will become pregnant has to be decided from context, which is exactly what the debate is about. The same announcement formula (the NABRE note cites Gen 16:11 and Judg 13:3) is spoken to Hagar, who has already conceived (Gen 16:4, 16:11), and to Manoah's wife, who is still barren (Judg 13:2–3, 13:5, 13:7). Translations split accordingly: KJV, ASV, JPS 1917 "shall conceive" and BSB "will be with child" (future); NRSV "is with child", JPS 2023 "is with child", NABRE "pregnant and about to bear", YLT and LSV "is conceiving" (present). The Jewish commentators also read it differently: Rashi argues that hārâ "is actually the future", citing Manoah's wife; Radak does not discuss the tense, but his paraphrase is in the present ("now she is pregnant, and now she is bearing a son"). Note on this site's own word-by-word line: the STEPBible glosses "[will be] pregnant" and "and/ [will] bear" put the future in square brackets because the glossers supplied it; the same glossers give "[are] pregnant" for the identical form in Gen 16:11. Treat the bracketed tense as an editorial choice, not as part of the Hebrew.18 19 20 21 15 22 23

How translations render it
“shall conceive”KJV, ASV, JPS, DBY
“will be with child”BSB
“is conceiving”YLT, LSV

Also: Genesis 16:11 · Judges 13:5 · Judges 13:7

Isaiah 7:14 · “shall call his name Immanuel”

וְקָרָאת שְׁמוֹ (wəqārāʾt šəmô); LXX καλέσεις (you, singular, will call); Matt 1:23 καλέσουσιν (they will call)

The form qārāʾt can be read as "she will call" (the reading the database's glosses and most translations take: KJV, ASV, JPS 1917 "shall call", Geneva "she shall call") or as "you (feminine) will call"; the KJV margin notes "or, thou, O virgin, shalt call". The identical form in the announcement to Hagar (Gen 16:11) is second person, "thou shalt call his name Ishmael". Ibn Ezra takes the ʿalmâ as the subject ("she", comparing the form in Exod 5:16); Radak takes the verb as addressed to the mother, a command from the prophet. The Septuagint has "you will call" (singular), Matthew 1:23 has "they will call", and the BSB footnote reports that the Dead Sea Isaiah scroll has "his name will be called" or "he will call". The Douay-Rheims, following the Vulgate, has "his name shall be called". Calvin made a theological argument from the feminine: naming was a father's right, so a mother naming the child points to a child with no earthly father. Against that, mothers do name children elsewhere in the Hebrew Bible (Leah in Gen 29:32–35, Hannah in 1 Sam 1:20; and Hagar is told to name Ishmael), and Radak says outright that "it was their custom that mothers named their sons". So the feminine verb alone does not imply a missing father; this is a question of interpretation, not grammar.24 25 26 16 27 14 15

How translations render it
“she shall call his name”GNV
“thou shalt call his name”LXXE
“his name shall be called”DRC
“they shall call his name”KJV

Also: Matthew 1:23 · Genesis 16:11

Isaiah 7:14 · “what was the sign, and for whom?”

אוֹת (ʾôt, 'sign'), given to the 'house of David' (7:13) in the reign of Ahaz

The sign is announced to King Ahaz during the Syro-Ephraimite threat, and 7:16 sets a timeline: before the child knows to refuse evil and choose good, the land of the two kings Ahaz dreads will be deserted. The readings divide on who the child is. (1) A child of Isaiah's own day: Trypho (2nd c.) said Hezekiah; Rashi says the prophet's wife and rejects Hezekiah because, counting the regnal years (2 Kgs 16:2; 18:2), Hezekiah was born about nine years before Ahaz began to reign; Ibn Ezra says a son of Isaiah, citing 8:3 and 8:18 ("I and the children ... are for signs"); Radak prefers Ahaz's wife, arguing that the prophet would have called his own wife "the prophetess" (8:3) and that 8:8 ("thy land, O Immanuel") implies a king's son. Ibn Ezra and Radak both add that a sign meant to reassure Ahaz cannot be an event centuries later. Rashi also records a minority view that the sign was that the ʿalmâ was too young to bear a child. (2) The Messiah only: Calvin argues a young woman conceiving naturally would be no sign at all, so the verse must mean a virgin conceiving by the Spirit, an argument already made by Justin (Dialogue 84) and Chrysostom. (3) Both: the 1970 Catholic NAB says "some Catholic writers" saw a "preliminary and partial fulfillment" in Hezekiah, while "the Church has always followed St. Matthew" in seeing the "transcendent fulfillment" in Christ. The 2011 NABRE reads the oracle as a reassurance to Ahaz in the setting of God's promise to David, and calls the Christian reading "understandable". In the Greek East, John Chrysostom defends the Septuagint's parthenos, answering the "young woman" objection by arguing that the Seventy translated long before Christ and so could not be suspected of bias, unlike the later Jewish translators. What the evidence settles: the Hebrew word does not by itself say "virgin", and 7:16 ties the sign to Ahaz's time. What it cannot settle: whether a text may have a further, fuller sense beyond its first setting. That is a question about how prophecy and the New Testament's use of it work, not about vocabulary.28 29 30 31 21 14 32 33 16 34 23 17

Also: Isaiah 7:16 · Isaiah 8:3 · Isaiah 8:8 · Isaiah 8:18 · 2 Kings 16:2 · 2 Kings 18:2

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